I agree that Colomer says there’s actually no difference between
the U.S. slavery and Latin American slavery. In Colomer’s blog, she argues: “When
Tannenbaum says that there was a difference between the Anglos and Spanish
slave system, I disagree” (Colomer Blog). On one hand she writes about how
people suffer in this country, she says they think the country is hopeless. On
the other hand, she quotes Tannenbum’s argument about that African American’s
cognition in the text:"An American, a white man with a black face" referring to the African Americans gaining a sense of recognition for learning
the ways of the Americans and with that recognition came the honor of being called
an American (Tannenbaum 41). Colomer thinks it is a contradiction because the
Negro had gained the recognition as their labors not as their own person. As
Tannenbum says in the text: “Wherever we had slavery, we had a slave society,
not merely in the blacks, but for the whites not merely for the law, but for
the family, not merely for the labor but for the labor system, but for the
culture—the total culture” (Tannebum 117). If the slavery is in the total culture, I think
it would be no difference between the U.S. slavery and the Latin America Slavery.
Tannenbum wrote thousands of words to tell us there are some differences in
between slaveries, but he toppled his own thesis at the end of the book.
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